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Solid D
03-05-2005, 10:55 PM
Next time you're hangin' out with friends, try this baseball rules trivia question out on someone. It happened in a game today between the Rangers and Royals:

Has anyone ever hit a ball over the outfield fence in fair territory and only been awarded a single? If so, how so?

Some unthinking or unknowing person might blurt out something like..."yeah, at the end of a game with the winning run coming in from third". That would be wrong.

What is the correct answer? Take a guess before you look.

http://texas.rangers.mlb.com/NASApp/mlb/news/article.jsp?ymd=20050305&content_id=957775&vkey=spt2005gamer&fext=.jsp&c_id=tex

timvp
03-06-2005, 02:10 AM
:lol

If there were two outs in the inning when that happened, what would that have been ruled? No runs would have been allowed, I assume

Guru of Nothing
03-07-2005, 04:20 PM
Without looking, I'm guessing a base-running blunder is involved, like two runners on the same base. That's my SWAG.

Guru of Nothing
03-07-2005, 04:23 PM
I read the answer. That sounds like something a Cub player would do in the bottom of the ninth inning of a World Series game 7.

FromWayDowntown
03-07-2005, 04:30 PM
:lol

If there were two outs in the inning when that happened, what would that have been ruled? No runs would have been allowed, I assume

I'd think it would be treated as a non-force situation -- if the run scores before the out occurs, then the run counts. Sort of like Ventura's "grand single" back in the 1999 NLCS.