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View Full Version : why didnt they foul???



v2000
05-16-2006, 08:27 AM
i was kind of curious, on the Mavericks last possession, why the Spurs would not foul? it seemed like they just gave up or something. does anyone have any clue what they were thinking? im not trying to bash the Spurs or anything, but im just kind of curious, perhaps if Kori or someone knew, because that was very odd.

LEONARD
05-16-2006, 08:27 AM
choked...

blaze89
05-16-2006, 11:00 AM
i was kind of curious, on the Mavericks last possession, why the Spurs would not foul? it seemed like they just gave up or something. does anyone have any clue what they were thinking? im not trying to bash the Spurs or anything, but im just kind of curious, perhaps if Kori or someone knew, because that was very odd.

Dirk had the ball and he's pretty much money on the FT line. They didn't wanna fould Dirk. When Stackhouse had the ball he ran away and avoided fouls.

FromWayDowntown
05-16-2006, 11:10 AM
Bowen was generally closest to the ball, but he had 5 fouls. It's a precarious situation to be in.

Of course, given the contact that got Dirk to the line in the last 10 seconds of regulation, I thought Bowen got him at least 3 times in overtime. Amazingly, that contact wasn't called.

FromWayDowntown
05-16-2006, 11:10 AM
Bowen was generally closest to the ball, but he had 5 fouls. It's a precarious situation to be in.

Of course, given the contact that got Dirk to the line in the last 10 seconds of regulation, I thought Bowen got him at least 3 times in overtime. Amazingly, that contact wasn't called.