WC, did you read the article? It says very clearly:
"When Congress was working on a bill (in 2003) to add a prescription drug benefit to Medicare some lawmakers worried that the new benefit would lead employers to eliminate the drug benefits that they had been providing retirees. So they (congress) agreed to reimburse empoyers for 28% of the cost of any plan that was at least as generous as the Medicare benefits."
If that is not a subsidy, WC, I cannot imagine what one would look like.
Think about this, WC, prior to 2003, AT&T was paying 100% of the prescription drug costs for some portion of its' retirees (not all of them got 100% coverage). After the medicare prescription drug 'reform' of the 2003, AT&T was paid by the government for 28% of the cost of a benefit they were already providing. It is a very direct subsidy.
Moreover, the "law also made the subsidies tax free, allowing the employers to deduct the full cost of the benefit they provided, - even the part financed by the taxpayers.
How is this NOT a subsidy in anyone's mind?