http://www.nbpa.com/cba_articles/article-X.php
Simply put, the scenario you laid out is exactly one of the explicit requirements for NBA draft eligibility.
My wife and i were talking about the draft last night, and we both dont quite understand why players can enter the draft while still contracted to teams in other parts of the world.
It seems to me that if you are trying to get drafted in the NBA, you should be available to play. I dont really get the concept of "rights to a player" or whatever the spurs seem to get involved in a lot.
Just curious if someone that understands this stuff more than me would care to explain.
http://www.nbpa.com/cba_articles/article-X.php
Simply put, the scenario you laid out is exactly one of the explicit requirements for NBA draft eligibility.
i for one, understand the issue here. why is it that if a player is contractually obligated to play for a non-NBA team, once he is drafted in the 1st round, he is eligible to receive guaranteed rookie-scale NBA money? i mean, if we're gonna be paying him, he'd have to play for us one day right? even if just for the summer league or the pre-season ( even for austin).
damn you Tau!![]()
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