If there were two outs in the inning when that happened, what would that have been ruled? No runs would have been allowed, I assume
Next time you're hangin' out with friends, try this baseball rules trivia question out on someone. It happened in a game today between the Rangers and Royals:
Has anyone ever hit a ball over the outfield fence in fair territory and only been awarded a single? If so, how so?
Some unthinking or unknowing person might blurt out something like..."yeah, at the end of a game with the winning run coming in from third". That would be wrong.
What is the correct answer? Take a guess before you look.
http://texas.rangers.mlb.com/NASApp/...=.jsp&c_id=tex
If there were two outs in the inning when that happened, what would that have been ruled? No runs would have been allowed, I assume
Without looking, I'm guessing a base-running blunder is involved, like two runners on the same base. That's my SWAG.
I read the answer. That sounds like something a Cub player would do in the bottom of the ninth inning of a World Series game 7.
I'd think it would be treated as a non-force situation -- if the run scores before the out occurs, then the run counts. Sort of like Ventura's "grand single" back in the 1999 NLCS.
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