This doesn't seem well thought out to me. Where's the specific statutory text and an explanation of how Mueller's inconsistent actions. Note that he's pussyfooting around here by a) using the word seems -- you either violate a statute or you don't, you can't be half-pregnant and b) acknowledges that Mueller "followed the regulations" but somehow made a referral beyond the statute's contemplation. He's talking out of both ends of his mouth.
If this is all try, what's the point in writing the letter in the first place? Why was that necessary - other than to get out the claim that Barr/Rosenstein decided not to prosecute? Again, more talking out of both sides of one's mouth.
Blatantly dishonest. The SC statute contemplates that congress - not Justice - has ultimate decision making on whether or not there is a crime. See, 28 CFR 600.9 (AG notifies chairman and Ranking Minority Member of the Judiciary Committees of each House of Congress, with an explanation for each action ...). Again, for being a lawyer, Fat Harvard prof sure is afraid to talk about what the terms of the actual law says.
More dishonesty. Why is he getting out in front of the report with a letter saying Justice won't prosecute? Why didn't he just release the executive summaries prepared by Mueller? For someone who wants the Congress and American people to be the judges, why is he crafting opinion/saying anything at all?
I'll also leave this here.
https://www.nytimes.com/2019/04/19/u...-excerpts.html