Then, specifically what torture statute or treaty has been violated?
Prosecutions in what courts, under what jurisdiction, and pursuant to what specific statutes?
Are you suggesting we should just find a court somewhere in the world that has the appropriate laws under which to try our citizens? America doesn't have a statute that says they violated an American law but, let's find some place that does and send our citizens to them just so we can get them tried.
I think Spain currently claims universal jurisdiction over all sorts of crimes committed anywhere in the world. Maybe we could send them there.
It's like you've found some criminals and now, you're in search of a law they've broken.
What statutes have been interpreted that way?
Also, you have to demonstrate the enhanced interrogation techniques -- particularly waterboarding -- are identical to the other forms of torture (whether by the same name or not) and, as yet, that's not conclusive.
What you have to do as a government in the United States of America wanting to put an American citizen on criminal trial is to state, in a indictment, the specific American statutes that were violated by the defendant.
If there are not statutes, in American criminal law, then you've got to find some other avenue to punish them. I don't see this government surrendering its own citizens over to another jurisdiction for trial.
Again, what law was broken?

at the thought) is show why that century of case history somehow doesn't apply to the current detainees. Bybee and Yoo and you have utterly failed to do so.
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You pretend that statutes don't exist because you are ignorant of them.