
that is such a red herring... particularly in the context of the question I asked. Does the question bother you so much? I mean, you felt inclined to prematurely throw down the 'fail' card... Dude, I know you rarely agree with me on anything (except maybe our devotion to the Spurs), but that accusation was weak.
I'm asking whether or not there are provisions made available to heterosexual (married

) couples in Sweden... and Holland... that are not extended to the sexual community in those same countries. Constraints that would otherwise keep sexual couples from wanting to enter a marriage agreement in the first place - any factor which would help explain the dismal percentages of sexual marriages, despite the lack of legal hindrance in those nations. The article doesn't expound on that particular facet of the argument. I'm simply trying to show that the data subset from those two countries could be statistically relevant and valid, despite the incessant (and convenient) ploy to toss it all away...