I just don't see the relationship between the two loans. Assuming they're two seperate banks, if the primary lien holder decides to reduce its loan, that's its choice. I'm just curious as to why the secondary lien would have to be wiped out in the event of a primary loan write-down? Is that some bank policy or what?
From a legal perspective, this makes no sense. In the event of a foreclosure, the primary loan is to be paid in full before a penny is applied to the secondary lien. The article even acknowledges this. I don't see why the write-down context should make a difference.